[Retros] Are the King and the Rook pieces or what?

A J Mestel A.J.Mestel at damtp.cam.ac.uk
Thu Jan 31 04:30:32 EST 2008

You could not make me castle rather than play Kf1 if I accidentally played
1 Kg1. However, if I played 1 Rf1 and stopped (pressed my clock) I don't
think I would be allowed to rectify my mistake saying I meant to castle.

If I play Kg1 and press my clock that counts as an illegal move and I must
make any K move, including 0-0-0 I suppose.

So here's my contribution:

W Ke1 Rh1 Qd4 Rg5 I play 1 Rf1 (intending to castle) but the game is over
because it's mate...or is it? My move isn't complete, but how do you know
that? I don't have to press my clock after a mating move, but until I do
my move isn't complete...

Every now and again they change the rules so that you have to move your
king first when castling, but then they change it back.


On Wed, 30 Jan 2008, raosorio at fibertel.com.ar wrote:

> Dear retrofirends,


> Many thanks for the clever discussions on this point. These are very useful to

> clarify my mind in the project which I'm involved toghether with Sergio Orce and

> Jorge Lois (Peña del Mate de Ayuda, Argentine Chess Club).


> this project would be to define "Minimal Deviation from the Rules" (MDR) as an extended

> space for compositions where a last (and just last ) illegal move in the diagram is

> accepted. This illegal move would be of MDR type (say, geometrically correct) and

> the problems would create puzzles and paradoxes to find that move and its consequences.

> all the above strcictly contained in the CODE.


> A furhter question on the castling case. I the wK is standing on e1 and a wR on h1, castling

> is legal and posible but the player conducing the white side moves the King to g1 and that's

> it, he stops there. This move is illegal, but it's also a half legal move. Is white forced to move

> the king freely or he's forced to castle?


> Best,

> Roberto



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